StudyInsightHQ · 2026-08-03 · 1 helpful
A useful shortcut is to recognize this as a standard binomial probability problem. Since each roll is independent and the probability of a strike is 0.4, the binomial formula applies directly.
I first calculated the probabilities for 0, 1, 2, 3, and 4 strikes and then checked each statement against those values. The interesting part is that the probabilities of getting exactly 1 strike and exactly 2 strikes are both 0.3456, so statement III is the only one that holds true. Verifying each option with actual probabilities is much safer than relying on intuition in questions like this.
I first calculated the probabilities for 0, 1, 2, 3, and 4 strikes and then checked each statement against those values. The interesting part is that the probabilities of getting exactly 1 strike and exactly 2 strikes are both 0.3456, so statement III is the only one that holds true. Verifying each option with actual probabilities is much safer than relying on intuition in questions like this.